changed since I had first test 7 plus years ago and one test done this spring. First was considered borderline. (If I remember was at 1.19? and a positive was 1.20?) Now I thinks the range is that a 1.0 or over is positive and my result came back as .60? If this were all true, the original test result would NOW be considered positve for lyme with the range changes. Can anyone straighten this out for me. My husband is convinced that this is what really ails me. I don't remember having a bulls eye rash but do rememeber having a nasty rash on my ankle after gardening that August when I started getting sick. They attributed the symptoms then to thryroid, bc a growth on thryroid started growing quickly, even though thyroid tests were normal. Then 2 months after thyroid surgery I got the killer flu and they associated all symptoms with post viral syndrome. I wonder, does the lyme bacteria target the thyroid? And of course it "lives" in the bloodstream I have heard it can HIDE anywhere. Even in sperm and those body fluids?